In these types of questions the verb 'do' is conjugated based on whether the noun is first, second or third person (eg do i, do you or , does he) The 'have' part of the question is not conjugated and appears as the bare infinitive regardless of the person of the noun. I have a question about where to use is and has Tea is come or tea has come lunch is ready or lunch has ready he is come back or he has come back she is assigned for work or. Has trump's political views changed on israel's war in gaza Another user felt it wasn't grammatically correct
Shouldn't the title be “have trump's political views…”, what with ‘views’ being plural I can never remember all the rules of english grammar I came across many sentences which have has had, had had for example the one that has had the most profound impact is generics i wanted to know what are the basic rule of using those? Which of the following is correct (and, most importantly, why) A glimmer of light after what have been long weeks of darkness A glimmer of light after what has been long weeks of darkness
Can anyone explain me in a simple way? The question asked covers more ground than just have or has I think op's example is just one example and the question asked is in order to know if who agrees with the verb when who is subject of this verb. I have read a similar question here but that one talks about the usage of has/have with reference to anyone Here, i wish to ask a question of the form Does anyone has/have a black pen
It has got four legs the verb is has got, and has is an auxiliary This is how we tend to use contractions when speaking fairly carefully When speaking quickly, has as a main verb tends to be reduced to /əz/ (especially in british accents) this might be written as 's. Could you please tell me the difference between has vs has been 1) the idea has deleted vs. 2) the idea has been deleted what is the difference between these two?
OPEN
