It was him who messed up everything What is the difference between these two sentences? For example, he is peter. But he's an apple can be mistaken for he is an apple, while he has an apple might be intended This rule doesn't work generally, therefore it can hardly be called a rule. The case of he/him should depend on other considerations, such as, the proper case after the linking verb, is
It should be simply a matter of which is more correct, it is he or, it is him my latin education would have me pick the former But my knowledge of colloquial english tells me that the phrase, it was him, is commonly used. 2 to convert the statement he is from the usa Into a yes/no question, one moves the first auxiliary verb (is in this example All forms of be are auxiliaries) to a position before the subject noun phrase (he in this example), and adds a question intonation if speaking, or a question mark if writing So the result is is he from the usa?
But these days i'm observing the usage of the above sentence (especially in american movies) like this, he don't eat meat So, after a lot of observations, i'm assuming that both usages are correct And, when you use a conjunctive adverb,. Why is it this is he rather than this is him [duplicate] ask question asked 14 years, 3 months ago modified 14 years, 3 months ago He said, “ qqq.” “ qqq,” he said
In particular, in what situations is the “inverted” vs 1 order of said he preferred over either or both of the two versions that use he said in the “normal” sv 2 order Are these nothing more than three equal options that vary by individual writers’ personal tastes? I know there are different opinions on this issue By common use i mean, can i expect my
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